Aquinas and Aristotle: Views on Women by Joseph Magee, PhD
The most common reference to the views of Aquinas and
Aristotle on women cites Summa Theologiae,
Part Ia, q. 92, a. 1, Obj. 1. The question is whether
woman should have been created in the beginning of the world, before the Fall
of Adam and the introduction of sin into the world. A hypothetical objection is
that, because of her imperfection, woman should not have been part of the
original creation.
Objection 1: It would seem that the woman should not have been made in the first
production of things. For the Philosopher [that is, Aristotle] says (De Gener. ii, 3), that "the female is a misbegotten
male." But nothing misbegotten or defective should have been in the first
production of things. Therefore woman should not have
been made at that first production.
Aquinas' basic reply is that woman should have been produced
in the Eden (as she was), since she is necessary for the generation of the
species. Having answered this (and upheld the reasonableness of God's actually
having created woman in Eden), he has to contend with the objection which cites
the leading scientific authority of the time, Aristotle. He does so by
conceding Aristotle's point that woman is "misbegotten," but only
considered as an individual being (as compared to the more perfect male being) and only with
respect to her body or matter, and not her soul. (By the way, Aquinas' words
which are usually translated as "defective and misbegotten" are in
Latin deficiens
et occasionatus,
which can mean "unfinished and caused accidentally." It has been argued
that, because of this alternate reading, Aquinas is free of some of the
negative connotations in translations of his works.)
ST Ia
q.92, a.1, Reply to Objection 1: As
regards the individual nature, woman is defective and misbegotten, for the
active force in the male seed tends to the production of a perfect likeness in
the masculine sex; while the production of woman comes from defect in the
active force or from some material defect, or even from some external
influence; such as that of a south wind, which is moist, as the Philosopher
[Aristotle] observes (De Gener. iv, 2). On the other
hand, as regards human nature in general, woman is not misbegotten, but is
included in nature's intention as directed to the work of generation.
Thus, in spite of Aristotle's biology, Aquinas believes that
woman is perfect in her nature, which is seen as the aimed at generation of the
human species. He clearly holds the view (quite universal at the time), that
women are inferior to men in both mind and body, and are naturally subject to
them. However, there is a more enlightened note -- he did not believe that
women were the slaves of men.
ST q.92, a.1, Reply to
Objection 2: Subjection is twofold. One
is servile, by virtue of which a superior makes use of a subject for his own
benefit; and this kind of subjection began after sin. There is another kind of
subjection which is called economic or civil, whereby the superior makes use of
his subjects for their own benefit and good; and this kind of subjection
existed even before sin. For good order would have been wanting in the human
family if some were not governed by others wiser than themselves. So by such a
kind of subjection woman is naturally subject to man, because in man the
discretion of reason predominates.
Aquinas does even have a few words to say in favor of the
fact that women are equal in dignity to men. Defending the fittingness of God's
making Eve from the rib of Adam, Aquinas takes Scripture in an allegorical
sense to signify the equality between them.
ST, q. 92, a. 3: I answer that, It
was right for the woman to be made from a rib of man. First, to signify the
social union of man and woman, for the woman should neither use authority over
man, and so she was not made from his head; nor was it right for her to be
subject to man's contempt as his slave, and so she was not made from his feet.
Being made from his side, she is his equal, though still
subject to his direction. Aquinas was not
a rabid misogynist (as is sometimes alleged), but neither was he much ahead of
his time. However, he does not seem to have had as low an estimation of women
as others in the Middle Ages, though.
Source: http://www.aquinasonline.com/Questions/women.html (edited by M. O’Neil)